Thermodynamic processes 1. Calculate the work done by the gas in an isothermal process from A to B. P A  = 1Pa, V A  = 3m 3 , P B  = 3Pa. a) 3.3J b) 3J c) -3.3J d) -4.58J Answer: -3.3J 2. Isothermal process can be represented by which law? a) Charle’s law b) Boyle’s law c) Gay-Lussac’s law d) 2nd law of thermodynamics Answer: Boyle’s law 3. In an isothermal process for an ideal gas, change in internal energy is zero. True or False? a) True b) False Answer: True 4. In which of the following processes is heat transfer equal to zero? a) Isentropic b) Isochoric c) Isothermal d) Diathermic Answer: Isentropic 5. Which of the following variables is zero for a cyclic process? a) Work done b) Heat supplied c) Total heat + Total work d) Total heat – Total work Answer: Total heat – Total work 6. The latent heat of steam at atmospheric pressure is. a) 1535 kJ/kg b) 1875 kJ/kg c) 2257 kJ/kg d) 2685 kJ/kg Answer: 2257 kJ/kg 7. Gas laws are applicable to a) Gases as we

  PCB Designing 1. Which phenomenon is not reduced by the circuit paths of lowest impedances especially provided by power and return planes for shielding purposes? a) Radiation b) Convection c) Noise d) Crosstalk Answer: Convection 2. High current circuits are purposely located or placed near the edge of PCB in accordance to the supply lines for  ________ a) Removal of heat b) Isolation of stray current c) Reduction of path length d) All of the above Answer: Removal of heat 3. Which among the below stated soldering methods is also renowned as 'High Frequency Resistance Soldering'? a) Iron Soldering b) Furnace Soldering c) Torch Soldering d) Electrical Soldering Answer: Electrical Soldering 4. Which among the below mentioned approaches belongs to the category of In-circuit Testing? a) Impedance Testing b) Component Testing c) Apply Signal and check output d) All of the above Answer: All of the above 5. Which type of solderability testing is carried out for t

  Basics of Standards Documentation 1. NEMA-4X standard excogitates its applications in _______ a) Indoor & Outdoor areas b) Hazardous area c) At site d) At site but non-hazardous area Answer: Hazardous area 2. How does the burden of legal liabilities get reduced in the process of documentation? a) By failure modes b) By operational limits c) By warning of hazardous operations d) All of the above Answer: All of the above 3. Which among the following forms the basis of ultimate standards and are maintained by national calibration laboratories? a) Primary standards b) Secondary standards c) Industry standards d) None of the above Answer: Primary standards 4. An MCL in the secondary standard represents ____________allowable quantity of a contaminant in drinking water supplied to consumer a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Normal d) None of the above Answer: Maximum 5. What does the parts key in the standard PCB documents refer to? a) Part number abbreviations b) Package size c) Lead spacing d)

 Noise In Electronic Circuits 1. If the amplifier is sold to engineering public, the noise figure that would be quoted in a catalog is a) 0.46 b) 0.94 c) 1.83 d) 2.93 Answer: 1.83 2. Noise factor for a system is defined as the ratio of a) Input noise power (P ni ) to output noise power (P no ) b) Output noise power (P no ) to input noise power (P ni ) c) Output noise power (P no ) to input signal power (P si ) d) Output signal power (P so ) to input noise power (P ni ) Answer: Output noise power (P no ) to input noise power (P ni ) 3. What is the maximum average effective input noise temperature that an amplifier can have if its average standard noise figure is to not exceed 1.7? a) 203 K b) 215 K c) 235 K d) 255 K Answer: 203 K 4. A receiver is operated at a temperature of 300 K. The transistor used in the receiver have an average output resistance of 1 k. The Johnson noise voltage for a receiver with a bandwidth of 200 kHz is a) 1.8 µV b) 8.4 µV c) 4.3 µV d) 12.6 µV

  Soldering Process 1. Soldering iron is made of wedge shape in order to__________ a) Apply high pressure at edge b) Retain heat c) Retain solder d) Forge welding Answer: Retain heat 2. Heat for soldering process is supplied by_____ a) Solderingring iron b) Induction furnace c) Electric resistance method d) Any of the above Answer: Any of the above 3. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to_______ a) Increase fluidity of solder metal b) Feel up gaps left in a bad joint c) Carbon steel d) Prevent oxides forming Answer: Prevent oxides forming 4. A soldering iron 'bit' is made of_______ a) Brass b) Tin c) Steel d) Copper Answer: Copper 5. The temperature range for soldering process is_______ a) 40 o C to 100 o C b) 180 o C to 250 o C c) 300 o C to 500 o C d) 600 o C to 900 o C Answer: 180 o C to 250 o C

   ICM 7217, ICL7107 and ULN2803 multiple choice questions ICM 7217 Which among the following controls the frequency of onboard multiplex oscillator in 4-digit ICM 7217A LED display? a) Resistor b) Digit Driver c) Capacitor d) Segment Decoder Answer: Capacitor ICL7107 Which phase of 31/2 digit LED Panel meter (7107/7106) to the process of conversion reveals the averaging of signal input for about 1000 clock pulses? a) Auto-zero phase b) Signal Integrate Phase c) Reference Integrate Phase d) All of the above Answer: Signal Integrate Phase ULN2803 Why do we need a ULN2803 in driving a relay? a) for switching a motor b) for increasing the current limit in the relays c) for increasing the power d) for decreasing the current limit in the relays Answer: for increasing the current limit in the relays

  Actuators 1. A pressure control process using proportional plus integral control has a time constant of 10 seconds. The best choice of actuator would be  a) An electric motor b) A pneumatic diaphragm c) A piston and cylinder d) A solenoid electrical Answer: A pneumatic diaphragm 2. An electronic controller creates a 4 to 20mA dc signal that must actuate a steam valve for temperature control. The best and most economical choice would be to  a) Use an all-electric actuator system b) Convert to a pneumatic signal at the controller and use a pneumatic actuator. c) Use pneumatic actuator with an electric to pneumatic valve positioner d) None of the above Answer: Use pneumatic actuator with an electric to pneumatic valve positioner 3. The basic function of the spring in a control valve is to a) Characterize flow b) Oppose the diaphragm so as to position the valve according to signal pressure c) Close the valve if air failure occurs d) Open the valve if air failure occurs Answer: Oppose the

  Earthing And Grounding 1. The ground wire is coloured a) Green b) Black c) Yellow d) Red Answer: Green 2. The neutral wire is coloured  a) Black  b) Blue c) Red d) Yellow Answer: Black 3. Grounding transformer is used where neutral ____________available a) Is b) Is not c) Either A or B d) None of the above Answer: Is not 4. In case of earth fault, the underground neutral system ___________ lead to arcing ground a) Does b) Does not  c) Any of the above d) None of the alarm Answer: Does 5. In equipment grounding, the enclosure is connected to  ___________ wire a) Ground b) Neutral c) Phase d) Either A or B Answer: Ground 6. Solid grounding is addopted for voltages below a) 100 V b) 200 V c) 400 V d) 660 V Answer: 660 V 7. In a star connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are a) Zero b) Phaser sum of phase currents c) Same as r.m.s. value of phase currents d) Same as peak value of phase currents Answer: Zero 8. When the 3-phase system is not grounded and if Si

  FIR Filters 1. What is the value of h(M-1/2) if the unit sample response is anti-symmetric? a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) None of the mentioned Answer: 0 2. Which of the following condition should the unit sample response of a FIR filter satisfy to have a linear phase? a) h(M-1-n) n=0,1,2…M-1 b) ±h(M-1-n) n=0,1,2…M-1 c) -h(M-1-n) n=0,1,2…M-1 d) None of the mentioned Answer: ±h(M-1-n) n=0,1,2…M-1 3. If the unit sample response h(n) of the filter is real, complex valued roots need not occur in complex conjugate pairs. a) True b) False Answer: False 4. The lower and upper limits on the convolution sum reflect the causality and finite duration characteristics of the filter. a) True b) False Answer: True 5. The anti-symmetric condition is not used in the design of low pass linear phase FIR filter. a) True b) False Answer: True 6. The roots of the polynomial H(z) are identical to the roots of the polynomial   H(z -1 ). a) True b) False Answer: True 7. The roots of the equation

  EMI and EMC 1. The unit of electrical field intensity is _________. Where , V is volt and m is meter. a) V/m b) V . m c) m / V d)V2/m Answer: V/m 2. ______________ high-frequency EMI source. a) radio b) television c) marine communication d) all of these Answer: all of these 3. Any conductor carrying elect ri cal current has an associated _________________ a) resistive field b) electrical field c) magnetic field d) capacitive field Answer: magnetic field 4. The ability of an electronic system to function properly in its intended electromagnetic  environment and should not be a source of pollution to that electromagnetic environment is known as a) Susceptibility b) Emission c) Interference d) Electromagnetic compatibility Answer: Electromagnetic compatibility 5. Electrical circuits are carriers of _________ as well as propagators of _____________  (i) electricity  (ii) static field  (iii) magnetic field a) (i), (ii) b) (ii), (iii) c) (iii), (i) d) (i), (iii) Answer: (i), (iii) 6. Which

  Shielding And Grounding Of Bridges 1. Which is the guarding arm? a) parallel RC combination b) series RC combination c) resistance R d) capacitance C Answer: series RC combination 2. In general bridges consist of __________ a) lumped inductances b) lumped resistances c) distributed capacitance d) distributed impedance Answer: lumped inductances 3. Most popular method of avoiding the stray capacitance effects is __________ a) by grounding b) by using guard rings c) by using galvanometer d) by using Wagner device Answer: by using Wagner device 4. Bridge is suitable for _________ a) coils with high Q values b) coils with low Q values c) coils with intermediate Q values d) coils with very high Q values Answer: coils with low Q values 5. The magnitude of stray capacitances is fixed. a) True b) False Answer: False 6. Stray capacitance exists between the components. a) True b) False Answer: True 7. Stray capacitance effects can be minimized by __________ a) making use of an inductance b) co

  Different Types of Valves 1. In which of these treatment systems diaphragm valves are preferred? a) Moving Bed Bioreactor(MBBR) b) Desalination c) Ultrafiltration d) Demineralisation systems Answer: Demineralisation systems 2. Which of these are usually not preferred for frequent operation? a) Ball valve b) Plug valve c) Gate valve d) Butterfly valve Answer: Gate valve 3. Which of the following valves are used in high duty cycle applications? a) Check valve b) Clapper valve c) Ceramic disc valve d) Choke valve Answer: Ceramic disc valve 4. Which valve can be used in the service to handle fluids and gases and at the same time can be used for throttling as well? a) Butterfly valve b) Gate valve c) Plug valve d) Diaphragm valve Answer: Plug valve 5. In globe valves, the flow rate control is determined by _______ a) Size of the opening b) Lift of the valve plug c) Pressure difference d) Gravity Answer: Lift of the valve plug 6. Poppet valves are used in piston engines a) True b) False An

  Process Control Valves 1. What is the velocity of water from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and rate of flow of water in Litres per second is 157L/s? a) 40m/s b) 30m/s c) 20m/s d) 30m/s Answer: 20m/s 2. What is the rate of flow of water in Litres per second from a cylindrical valve if the cylindrical valve has a diameter of 10 cm and velocity of water is 12m/s? a) 100L/s b) 127L/s c) 157L/s d) 94.2L/s Answer: 94.2L/s 3. How many ports does a 3 way valve have? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: 3 4. How many exit ports does a 2 way valve have? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: 1 5. What is the final amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve was 10m 3 /hr which was reduced by 80%? a) 3m 3 /hr b) 4m 3 /hr c) 5m 3 /hr d) 2m 3 /hr Answer: 2m 3 /hr 6. What is the percentage change in amount of water flowing through a valve in one hour when originally the rate of flow from the valve

  Control Valve 1. The definition of split range control valves implies that they are a) calibrated with complementary ranges. b) easily re-ranged for different characteristics. c) equipped with quick-acting positioners. d) only used in sets of three. Answer: calibrated with complementary ranges. 2. The proper “fail safe” status of a valve should always be dictated by a) economic savings b) the nature of the process c) the controller’s tuning d) the controller’s action (direct or reverse) Answer: the nature of the process 3. Calculate the necessary Cv rating for a liquid service valve, given a pressure drop of 24 PSID, a specific gravity of 1.3, and a maximum flow rate of 140 GPM. Assume there will be no flashing or choked flow through the valve. a) 0.1319 b) 32.58 c) 7.583 d) 2585 Answer: 32.58 4. When a valve is installed in a process with where the differential pressure (drop) across the valve decreases with increasing flow, the best trim characteristic to choose for the valve would

  Programmable Logic Controller 1. The acronym PLC stands for a) Pressure Load Control b) Programmable Logic Controller c) Pneumatic Logic Capstan d) PID Loop Controller Answer: Programmable Logic Controller 2. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that a) Defaults to the “on” state b) Is not reset after a power cycle c) Defaults to the “off” state d) Cannot be edited or deleted Answer: Is not reset after a power cycle 3. A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be a) A communications function block b) A PID function block c) A math function block d) A motor start/stop rung Answer: A PID function block 4. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which   a) the technician enters the program b) timers and counters are indexed by c) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete d) the entire program takes to execute Answer: the entire program takes to execute 5. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is a) whether the PLC i